John does not want to baptize Jesus (Mt 3:14-3:14)


Would have prevented Jesus.


‘I need to be baptized

By you.

Do you come to me?’”


ὁ δὲ διεκώλυεν αὐτὸν λέγων Ἐγὼ χρείαν ἔχω ὑπὸ σοῦ βαπτισθῆναι, καὶ σὺ ἔρχῃ πρός με;


However, John the Baptist was reluctant to baptize Jesus.  Here in Matthew, John immediately recognized Jesus.  He then questioned his own worthiness to baptize Jesus.  He thought that it should be the other way around since he recognized the superiority of Jesus.  In fact, John tried to prevent Jesus from getting baptized by him (ὁ δὲ διεκώλυεν αὐτὸν).  John said that he needed to be baptized by Jesus (λέγων Ἐγὼ χρείαν ἔχω ὑπὸ σοῦ βαπτισθῆναι).  He wanted to know why Jesus was coming to him (καὶ σὺ ἔρχῃ πρός με).  This is a question that many Christian followers ask.  Why did Jesus have to be baptized since he had no sins?  Was John not correct?  Jesus should have baptized John, not the other way around.

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